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Thread: Combinatorics/Probability task

Started 1 month, 2 weeks ago by SpitZker
Please help to explain solution to the task: 40 raffle tickets are sold to 40 individuals including one to each member of a family of 3, Two prizes are to be raffed and one person cannot win both prizes. What is the probability that the family wins at least one prize?
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Total authors: 3 authors
Total thread posts: 7 posts
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Other posts in this thread:

cristofer replied 1 month, 2 weeks ago
call the prizes x an y and the family members a, b, c. the total number of ways to match family members with prizes is ax, bx, cx ay, by, cy, ax & by, ax & cy bx & ay, bx & cy cx & ay, cx & by 12 different ways. (or 3(1) + 3(1) + 3(2)) the total number of ways for 40 people to be matched with two different prizes is (40)(39) (permutation formula because order matters) so the prob ...

cristofer replied 1 month, 2 weeks ago
actually, it doesn't matter if the prizes are different or not. the # ways for the family to get a prize is (3 ch 1) + (3 ch 2) = 3+3 = 6 the total number of ways the prizes can be given out is (40 ch 2) = (40x39)/2 6/((40x39)/2) = 12/(40x39) same as before

SpitZker replied 1 month, 2 weeks ago
Cristofer, thanks for replying. Well, the answer is somehow 19/130...

cristofer replied 1 month, 2 weeks ago
wow, i totally messed that up! sorry, but I see my mistake now. the numerator should be (3 ch 1)(37 ch 1) + (3 ch 2)(37 ch 0), which is 3x37 + 3 = 3x38 so (3x38)/((40x39)/2) = (6x38)/(40x39) = 19/130 sorry! i hope you can forgive me

SpitZker replied 1 month, 2 weeks ago
Thanks a lot for helping!!! BTW a friend of mine came up with an easy solution. The calculation she used goes from the opposite - what's the probability that none of the 3 family members gets a prize: 37/40 x 36/39 = 111/130 Now substract this from the total number of probabilities: 1-111/130=19/130

arindambanerji replied 1 month, 1 week ago
Probability of winning atleast 1 of the raffles = 1 - (probability of winning nothing) Prob of winning nothing on the first attemp = 37/40 Prob of winning nothing on the second attemp = 36/39 Prob of winning nothing = P(a) and P(b) Prob of winning atleast 1 = 1- (37/40*36/39) = 19/130

 

Top contributing authors

Name
Posts
cristofer
3
user's latest post:
Combinatorics/Probability task
Published (2009-11-09 01:30:00)
wow, i totally messed that up! sorry, but I see my mistake now. the numerator should be (3 ch 1)(37 ch 1) + (3 ch 2)(37 ch 0), which is 3x37 + 3 = 3x38 so (3x38)/((40x39)/2) = (6x38)/(40x39) = 19/130 sorry! i hope you can forgive me
SpitZker
3
user's latest post:
Combinatorics/Probability task
Published (2009-11-09 12:13:00)
Thanks a lot for helping!!! BTW a friend of mine came up with an easy solution. The calculation she used goes from the opposite - what's the probability that none of the 3 family members gets a prize: 37/40 x 36/39 = 111/130 Now substract this from the total number of probabilities: 1-111/130=19/130
arindambanerji
1
user's latest post:
Combinatorics/Probability task
Published (2009-11-12 06:21:00)
Probability of winning atleast 1 of the raffles = 1 - (probability of winning nothing) Prob of winning nothing on the first attemp = 37/40 Prob of winning nothing on the second attemp = 36/39 Prob of winning nothing = P(a) and P(b) Prob of winning atleast 1 = 1- (37/40*36/39) = 19/130

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